26. Tes Sumatif Semester Gasal 2007/2008

PAKET B

MATA PELAJARAN : BAHASA INGGRIS
KELAS : III ( Level Intermediate ) JAM : 120 menit

LISTENING SECTION

In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special direction for each part.

PART I

Directions: For each question, you will see a picture in your test book and you will hear four short statements. These statements will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.

When you hear the four statements, look at the picture in your test book and choose the statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. Look at the sample below.

Now listen to the four statements.

A. They’re looking out the window.

B. They’re having a meeting.

C. They’re eating in a restaurant.

D. They’re moving the furniture.

Statement B, “They’re having a meeting”, best describes what you see in the picture. Therefore you should choose answer B.

1.

2.

3.

PART II

Directions: In this part of the test you will hear a question spoken in English, followed by three responses, also spoken in English. The question and the responses will be spoken two times. They will not be printed on your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response to each question. Now listen to a sample question.

You will hear: Good morning, John. How are you?

A. I am fine, thank you.

B. I am in the living room.

C. My name is John.

The best response to the question “How are you?” is choice A, “I am fine, thank you.” Therefore, you should choose answer A.

4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

PART III

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear four short conversations between two people. The conversations will not be printed in your test book. You will hear the conversations two times, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.

In your test book you will read a question about each conversation. The question will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

8. What does the woman want to do?

A. Clean up the papers.

B. Close the business for the day.

C. Read a section of the newspaper.

D. Finish writing the report.

9. Where does the man want to go?

A. To the end of the train.

B. A suburb of Pittsburgh.

C. To school

D. To his job.

10. Who is Ellen?

A. Wayne’s relative.

B. Chin’s boss.

C. A new worker

D. A consultant.

11. Why did the doctor change plans?

A. The nurse has a contagious disease.

B. He has another operation.

C. The problem is more serious than he thought.

D. Some hospital employees are protesting.

PART IV

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear two short talks. Each will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is said.

In your test book you will read two questions about each short talk. The questions will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

12. For whom is the announcement intended?

A. Bus riders.

B. Train passengers.

C. Maintenance workers.

D. Airplane passengers.

13. Why would a listener call extension 142?

A. If he is lost.

B. If he needs a newspaper.

C. If he forgets something.

D. If the recycle bin needs emptying.

14. Who is speaking?

A. A weather reporter.

B. A tour guide.

C. A coastal resident.

D. A state official.

15. When should the situation improve?

A. Tonight

B. Tomorrow

C. By Friday

D. On Saturday

THIS IS THE END OF LISTENING TEST

II. READING SECTION

PART V

Directions : Question 16 – 25 are incomplete sentences. Four words or phrases, marked (a), (b), (c), (d) are given. You have to choose the one word or phrases that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

16. Ambar: Where did you spent your holiday last week?

Lita : I spent my holiday in Bali, but actually ……………….

A. I go to Pantai Sanur

B. My holiday is very interesting

C. I usually spend my holiday at home

D. My holiday makes me bored

17. Anne: Where’s Brenda, Tom?

Tom : She’s arranging the report in her office now. She ……. doing it two hours ago

A. is beginning

B. began

C. will begin

D. has begun

18. Andrea : I phoned Sherrie but she didn’t answer

Tommy: She ……….. sleeping

A. can be

B. must be

C. may be

D. will be

19. Caller : Hello, may I speak to Mr. Smith, please? This is Susan, secretary of Duta

Company

Receiver : ……………………………

A. Hello Susan. Nice to meet you

B. Hold on, I’ll take a message for you

C. Would you like to leave a message?

D. He’s speaking on the other line. Will you hold?

20. Betty: I’m confused. What will I do after graduating school. Do you have any idea?

Mira : ………………….

A. Why don’t you seek a job?

B. You are a good student, aren’t you?

C. Don’t worry about that. Everything will be alright

D. I will continue to study in Gajahmada University

21. Lucy : You look thinking something hard. What’s happen?

Ukky: ………… It seems that everyday is the same for me. I need something new.

A. I’m happy now

B. I’m very thirsty

C. I’m feeling well now

D. I’m bored

22. Lukman: You didn’t come to Mira’s party. It was very wonderful

Harry : ………………….

A. I’m sorry about that

B. If I hadn’t accompanied my mother to the doctor, I would have come

C. Yes, I am very disappointed, too because I am very busy with my work at the Office

D. I will come to her party if she invites me

23. Budi : I saw you quarrel with Mira yesterday.

Tina : Yes. There was …………. between us. She didn’t understand what I said

A. unconnected

B. misspelling

C. misscommunication

D. undo

24. Handy: I heard that Nina got a new job in Jakarta. She must be happy about that.

Hilman: I don’t think so. Actually she’s ………because she must live far from her

family

A. upset

B. confused

C. worried

D. sad

25. The teacher : Mirna, you get the scholarship to continue your study in Australia.

Mirna : Thank you, Mom for your information.

Ani : What did the teacher tell you

Mirna : She told me that ………………

A. You get the scholarship to continue your study in Australia
B. I get the scholarship to continue your study in Australia
C. She got the scholarship to continue her study in Australia
D. I got the scholarship to continue my study in Australia

PART VI

Directions : In questions 26 – 35, each sentence has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined part of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), (D). You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

26. Ms. Adelin: Are the staff in the meeting room now?

Susan : Yes, they are waiting for you there for an hour

Ms. Adelin: Okey! I’ll start the meeting in five minutes

27. Umar : How tall is Rudy, do you know?

Indra : He’s more taller than your brother Ridwan, but I’m not sure

28. Ani : The woman who I saw last night is very beautiful. Who is she?

Nina : Oh, she’s my aunt who comes from Bandung. Sheis an fashion designer.

She looks fashionable, doesn’t she?

29. Adi : The meeting finished two hours ago, but Mr. Hartadi is still waiting for you in his office.

Nina : She must be angry with me. If I didn’t catch a traffic jam I can attend the meeting

30. Lucky : Wan, which one do you like best? Playing badminton or football?

Iwan : Well, I’d rather playing football. It’s more interesting

31. Deni : Where’s your car, Gus? I don’t see anywhere.

Bagus : In the garage. It’s repairing now by the mechanic

32. Customer : Waiter! We arrived five minutes ago but we still haven’t even seen the menu

Waiter : That’s Okey, thanks. I’ll take the menu immediately. I’m sorry for the inconvenient.

33. Anita : Hello. I’m calling to confirmation my appointment with the doctor on Thursday January 27 at 9:00 tomorrow morning

34. Nina : Where’s your father?

Mita : He left to Jakarta this morning, but he’ll be back tonight after having the meeting there

35. Nina : I don’t like the new student in my class. He’s very arrogant.

Mita : Yes, I agree with you. He always looks at me without smile at all. B C D

PART VII

Directions : For question 36 – 50, you are given selection of reading materials such as letters, notices, memo, graphic, meeting agenda and advertisement. You have to choose the one best answer (a), (b), (c), (d) to each question. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer . Answer all the questions following each reading selection on the basis of what is stated or implied in that selection.

Questions 36 and 37 refer to the following Advertisement

CAREER FOR BETTER JOB

Data Entry / Clerk

Insurance firm seeks reliable person. For operations division.

Must be good with detail and computer literate

Responsibilities include data entry, filing and Word processing.

Good salary and benefits. Pleasant atmosphere

Room advance

For further information, please4 contact

(0251) 65198501

36. What is one responsibility of this job?

A. Data entry

B. Operating a division

C. Looking for customers

D. Selling insurance

37. What is one benefit of this position?

A. They’ll give you your own office later

B. You can work toward promotions

C. You can earn commissions

D. You get high shares

Questions 38 to 41 refer to the following the Article

Since he was released from a death camp in 1945, Simon Wiesenthal has devoted his life to avenging the fate of the six million Jews killed in Germany during World War II. His work is bringing Nazi war criminals to justice. He finds them by using information from the Nazi’s own files. He also gets leads from informers, who are often anonymous.

He has helped in the capture of about eight hundred Nazis, including Adolf Eichman. In 1963, new located the captor of Anne Frank, the Jewish girl who wrote the famed diary about her family’s life while hiding from the Nazis.

Before the war, Mr. Wiesenthal was a successful architect in Poland. The Germans sent him and his wife to a prison camp. He was able to make contact with the Polish underground, and he gave them sketches showing how to blow p the railway. In return the underground supplied him with false papers so his wife could escape.

38. Who was Simon Wiesenthal?

A. A Nazi police

B. A Nazi officer

C. An architect

D. A Nazi hunter

39. Who was Anne Frank?

A. Simon’s daughter

B. Adolf’s girl

C. Nazis family

D. The Jewish girl

40. Because of his help to the Polish underground ……………….

A. he became an architect

B. his wife could escape

C. he was almost killed

D. he became famous

41. Which of these statements is not true according to the passage?

A. Adolf Eichman was one of the war criminals

B. Wiesenthal used to be an architect

C. Her diary made Anne Frank famous

D. Simon’s mother was a cattle car driver

Questions 42 to 43 refer to the following Notice

It’s time to renew your insurance policy. In order to prepare your policy for the coming year, please contact a representative at the number listed. Yo will need to provide any changes to your address, the year and make of your vehicle(s), the approximate number of miles driven per year, and the current mileage. Please have this information available when you speak with a representative

42. What information is not needed?

A. Ages of all drivers

B. Where the person lives

C. How far the car is driven

D. The type of the car

43. How will the company gather the information?

A. Through office visits

B. Through postcards

C. Through personal interviews

D. Through phone calls

Questions 44 to 47 refer to the following Instructions.

Enclosed you will find your new “First Bank” Automatic Bank Card. Follow these simple instructions to activate it.

• Call the telephone number on the back of the card and press #1. state your full name as it appears on the card. You will then be asked for your city of birth for identification purposes. Upon answering, you will be prompted to enter a four-digit secret identification password. You are encouraged to select a non-obvious password. You will then be asked to repeat it. a representative will confirm your account number. Now, you’re ready to use your bank card.
• Please keep the card in a secure place and do not give your password to anyone. At any time, you can call the telephone number if you lose your card or want to change your password

=======================================FIRST BANK

44. For whom are these instructions written?

A. Bank representative

B. New bank customers

C. A security company

D. Credit card holders

45. What information will not be asked?

A. Your birth date

B. Your account number

C. Your birthplace

D. A personal ID number

46. If your birthday is 09/14, what would be the best password for you?

A. 0914

B. 013948

C. Your telephone number

D. 6952

47. When can customers use the card?

A. Immediately

B. When they receive confirmation in the mail

C. After paying a fee

D. As soon as they make the phone call

Questions 48 to 50 refer to the following Schedule

CAROL’S SCHEDULE

Tuesday

08.00 Doctor’s appointment

10.00 Meeting with architects

12.00 Lunch with Mom at the Border Grill

3.00 Conference call with New York office

4.30 Coffee with John – remind him about planning meeting tomorrow

48. What will Carol do before having meeting?

A. Meeting with her staff

B. Eat a meal at a restaurant

C. Talk on the telephone

D. Visit the doctor

49. When is the planning meeting?
A. At 4.30

B. On the Wednesday

C. At 10.00

D. On Thursday

50. Who will probably attend the planning meeting?

A. The doctor

B. Carol’s Mom

C. John

D. The architects

THIS IS THE END OF THE ENGLISH TEST

25. Tes Sumatif Semester Gasal 2007/2008

PAKET A

MATA PELAJARAN : BAHASA INGGRIS
KELAS : III ( Level Intermediate )
JAM : 120 menit

LISTENING SECTION

In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special direction for each part.

PART I

Directions: For each question, you will see a picture in your test book and you will hear four short statements. These statements will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.

When you hear the four statements, look at the picture in your test book and choose the statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. Look at the sample below.

Now listen to the four statements.

A. They’re looking out the window.

B. They’re having a meeting.

C. They’re eating in a restaurant.

D. They’re moving the furniture.

Statement B, “They’re having a meeting”, best describes what you see in the picture. Therefore you should choose answer B.

1.

2.

3.

PART II

Directions: In this part of the test you will hear a question spoken in English, followed by three responses, also spoken in English. The question and the responses will be spoken two times. They will not be printed on your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response to each question. Now listen to a sample question.

You will hear: Good morning, John. How are you?

A. I am fine, thank you.

B. I am in the living room.

C. My name is John.

The best response to the question “How are you?” is choice A, “I am fine, thank you.” Therefore, you should choose answer A.

4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

PART III

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear four short conversations between two people. The conversations will not be printed in your test book. You will hear the conversations two times, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.

In your test book you will read a question about each conversation. The question will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

8. What does the woman want to do?

A. Clean up the papers.

B. Close the business for the day.

C. Read a section of the newspaper.

D. Finish writing the report.

9. Where does the man want to go?

A. To the end of the train.

B. A suburb of Pittsburgh.

C. To the “Lost and Found Office.”

D. To his job.

10. Who is Ellen?

A. Wayne’s relative.

B. Chin’s boss.

C. A new worker.

D. A consultant.

11. Why did the doctor change plans?

A. The nurse has a contagious disease.

B. He has another operation.

C. The problem is more serious than he thought.

D. Some hospital employees are protesting.

PART IV

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear two short talks. Each will be spoken two times. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is said.

In your test book you will read two questions about each short talk. The questions will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

12. For whom is the announcement intended?

A. Bus riders.

B. Train passengers.

C. Maintenance workers.

D. Airplane passengers.

13. Why would a listener call extension 142?

A. If he is lost.

B. If he needs a newspaper.

C. If he forgets something.

D. If the recycle bin needs emptying.

14. Who is speaking?

A. A weather reporter.

B. A tour guide.

C. A coastal resident.

D. A state official.

15. When should the situation improve?

A. Tonight

B. Tomorrow

C. By Friday

D. On Saturday

THIS IS THE END OF LISTENING TEST

II. READING SECTION

PART V

Directions : Question 16 – 25 are incomplete sentences. Four words or phrases, marked (a), (b), (c), (d) are given. You have to choose the one word or phrases that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

16. Tyas : The students are ready to have flag ceremony every Monday morning.

They come on time. How about your school, Gus? Does your school do that ?

Agus : No,………..

Tyas : How could it happened ?

A. They come fifteen minutes before the flag ceremony begins

B. Many students are late to school

C. Some of the students have to practice their skill in industry

D. Most of them are ready to have it

17. Dedy : Oh no! I lost my hand phone somewhere!

Rizky : When did you realize you had lost your hand phone ?

Dedy : ................

A. When I was opening my bag to put my hand phone

B. When I needed to phone my friends

C. I do not know when I realized that

D. I didn’t find it in my bag

18. Anton : We can go to the canteen after we finish our work here

Putri : But…………….

Anton : All right sure just for you, you may go there now

A. My daughter is sick now, I have to accompany her in the hospital, may I

leave now ?

B. I don’t have much time , I must go now

C. We may leave work now

D. We could continue after going home

19. Receptionist : Good morning , PERMATA HATI Incorporation , Can I help you ?

Caller : Yes, Good morning ………………….

Receptionist : Hold a moment please ………

A. What time does the office close ?

B. May I go inside the room please ?

C. I must to speak to the Manager

D. Can I speak to the Manager please ?

20. Praba : Mom, I will go to the movie now. It’s getting late

Mother : Do you see that it’s raining very hard ? ………………………………

A. Please don’t go now

B. Who do you go with ?

C. All right you may go now

D. You’d better stay home, otherwise you’ll catch cold

21. Rini’s father : How do you like your vacation Rini ?

Rini : Wonderful ! ……………….

A. It was very exciting, I’m very happy Dad ,thank you !

B. Please do not ask me to go there anymore Dad I’m very afraid

C. I ever been there before Dad , nothing interested to me

D. Trust me I never will go there again

22. Mr Andri : Have you consulted this proposal to the headmaster?

Mr Andrew : No, …………………………

A. If I have come earlier, I could have met The headmaster yesterday

B. If I had come earlier, I could have met The headmaster yesterday

C. If I have come earlier, I can have meet The headmaster today

D. If I don’t come late, I will meet The headmaster now

23. Wayan : Have you bought a book that our lecture asked us to buy ?

Indra : Yes, I finally found it ! This book is very easy and pleasant to read

It is ………………..!

A. ready to use

B. understandable

C. Copy able

D. Readable

24. Nia : I can’t cut the meat with this knife. It’s blunt. Can you give me the ………

one?

Tia : You can get it on the top shelf in the kitchen

A. old

B. sharp

C. short

D. swallow

25. Mr Richard : What did you say when they ask you about the last product ?

Mr Andrew : …………………………………………………

A. I said that the product was more perfect than the last product

B. I do not know how to say that

C. I said whether they want to order the product or not

D. I said not to make any mistake anymore

PART VI

Directions : In questions 26 – 35, each sentence has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined part of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), (D). You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

26.

The parents : Why didn’t you allow the children to watch their favorite TV program yesterday ?

The Nanny : We allowed the children to watch their favorite TV program yesterday only after they finishing doing their school assignment

7.

The teacher : Can you make a decision in this problem ? you are a leader in this group

The student : This is the difficult decision for me. I haven’t had to make such a difficult decision for years

28. Andy : Is everybody graduated from SMK TARUNA JAYA invited to the party ?

Indah : Well, the party is exclusively for those whose graduated in 1999

29.

The teacher : Why are you always late to school Ani? Do you work somewhere before going to school?

The student : Yes, Mom. If my parents are alive, I wouldn’t have to work for my

tuition fee

30.

30. 30. The waiter : What would you like to order, Sir ? Steak or sirloin?

The guest : I like prefer steak, please. Well-done with chili

31.

Mr Anton : Who is cleaning the room ?

Intan : The room is being cleaning by Mr Norman now, Sir

32.

Waiter : Is there any problem , Sir ?

Customer : Yes, I do not like the steak well-done

Waiter : Thank you very much, sir. I’ll change it

33

Diana: Hello, Is it Mr Adam’s secretary?

Sinta : Yes, speaking

Diana: I am behalf on Mr Eddy. He couldn’t have a meeting on Saturday Dec 17^th

He’s still in Paris. I’m afraid I have to stop Mr Adam’s appointment with him

34.

A driver : Where will you drop in ?

A guest : Please, take me to Simpang Lima square. By the way, Can you pick me down at 7 tonight?

35.

Jimmy : Why have you decided to back to school ?

Tia : I’m tired for work as a secretary

PART VII

Directions : For question 36 - 50, you are given selection of reading materials such as letters, notices, memo, graphic, meeting agenda and advertisement. You have to choose the one best answer (a), (b), (c), (d) to each question. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer . Answer all the questions following each reading selection on the basis of what is stated or implied in that selection.

Questions no. 36 to 38 refer to the following Advertisement

SEA ISLAND RESORT

Spend your next vacation with us

Enjoy our:

• private beach
• two swimming pools
• four tennis courts
• five restaurants
• beautiful weather all year

It’s easy to get here. We’re just eight kilometers from the airport

Call your travel agent to make reservations.

36. What is this Ad for?

A. An airline

B. A travel agency

C. A vacation place

D. A sport club

37. What is one thing you can’t do at Sea Island Resort?

A. Swim

B. Play tennis

C. Eat

D. Play golf

38. How can you make reservations for Sea Island Resort?

A. Call a travel agent

B. Write a letter to the resort owner

C. Call the airport

D. Send an e-mail

Questions no. 39 and 40 refer to the following Business Correspondence

Market Products, Inc.

830 2^nd Ave. Suite 20B. New York. NY 10015

June 7, 2007

Ms. Lucy Harper

2091 W 4^th Avenue. Buffalo, NY 12345

Dear Ms. Harper,

Thank you for your letter of April 15 looking for a job at Market Products. You have good experience and an execclent education. I am sorry to tell you, however, that we don’t have any job openings at this time.we will keep your resume and contact you if we have any job openings in the future. Good luck.

Best Regards,

John Rogers

Human Resources Director

39. Why did John Rogers write this letter?

A. To offer Ms. Harper a job

B. To sell products to Ms. Harper

C. To reply to Ms. Harper’s letter

D. To explain the work of market products

40. When did Ms. Harper write the letter?

A. On April 5

B. On April 15

C. On June 7

D. On June 17

Questions 41 to 43 refer to the following Form

EDUCATIONAL OPPORTUNITIES

SCHOLARSHIP FUND

1701 University Circle, Oxford. NY

Your gift will make it possible for needy young people to get a college degree. We rely on gift from people like you. Please be as generous as possible.

 $ 25  $ 75  $ 100  $ 250

Thank you!

Name ________________________________

Street ________________________________

City/State/Zip ________________________________

Check One

__ Check enclosed

__ Money order enclosed

­­­­__ Charge my credit card: No. _____________ Expiration date ____

Signature ( required for credit card charges ) ___________________

41. What is this form for?

A. Ordering holiday gifts

B. Contributing to a scholarship fund

C. Paying college tuition

D. Requesting information on educational opportunities

42. What possible form of payment is not listed?

A. Cash

B. Check

C. Money Order

D. Credit Card

43. Who should sign this form?

A. Anybody who sends in a payment

B. Anybody who has a credit card

C. Anybody who needs a scholarship

D. Anybody who pays by credit card

Questions no 44 to 46 refer to the following Instructions

WARNING!!

Do not take this medication while driving or while operating machinery. If taking other medication, see your doctor or pharmacist beforehand. Please note the following side effects: nausea, dryness of the mouth, headaches and drowsiness. If a rash appears, discontinue use and notify your physician.

44. Who should avoid taking this medication while working?

A. A writer

B. A Chauffer

C. A waitress

D. A Clerk

45. What is one of the negative effects of this medication?

A. Dry skin

B. Upset stomach

C. Hunger

D. Light-headedness

46. Who should see a doctor?

A. People with nausea

B. People who take this medication

C. People who discontinue use

D. People who get skin irritation

Questions 47 to 50 refer to the following Announcement

A French cosmetics giant announced that it has applied for a license to construct a $7.5 million cosmetics factory in the Dietaka Industrial Park in Cong Tum. The factory will be similar in design to one they built five years ago outside Malacca in Malaysia. The completely foreign-owned enterprise will produce skin care products, cosmetics and perfume. According to a study done by the company, 75% of the raw materials will be sourced locally and the plant will employ up to 450 workers from Cong Tum and neighboring Qi Nohn and Play Cu. The new Vietnamese factory is expected to enjoy sales totaling $ 2 million dollars with the first year, with an additional million the year after.

47. Where will the new factory be located?

A. Malacca

B. Cong Tum

C. Play Cu

D. Qui Nohn

48. What does the company need to begin building?

A. At least 450 workers

B. At least agreement with Dietaka Industrial Park

C. A license to start

D. Foreign capital

49. Where will most of the factory’s production resources come from?

A. France

B. Overseas

C. Malaysia

D. The Cong Tum region

50. What will be the expected sales in the second year?

A. 1 million dollars

B. 2 million dollars

C. 3 million dollars

D. 7.5 million dollars

THIS IS THE END OF THE ENGLISH TEST