TRY OUT BAHASA INGGRIS PAKET 3
LISTENING SECTION ( no. soal 1 – 30 )
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.
PART I
Directions: For each question, you will see a picture in your test book and you will hear four short statements. These statements will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speaker says.
When you hear the four statements, look at the picture in your test book and choose the statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. Look at the example below
Now listen to the four statements Sample answer …..
A. The moon shines at night
B. The sun shines during the day
C. The moon travels around the sun
D. The half moon shines brightly
Statement ( A ) “The moon shines at night” best describes what you see in the picture, therefore you should close answer ( A ).
PART II
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear a question spoken in English, followed by three responses, also spoken in English. The question and the responses will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response to each question.
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
8. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
9. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
10. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
11. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
12. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
13. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
PART III
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear five short conversations. The conversations will not be printed in your test book. You will hear the conversations twice, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say.
In your test book, you will read a question about each conversation. The question will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.
14. Who is the man talking to ?
A. A teller
B. A conductor
C. A ranch hand
D. A accountant
15. Why is the man upset ?
A. His earnings are incomplete
B. He can’t watch his program
C. He can’t stand up
D. He can’t use the software
16. How long will Mr. Tan be away from work ?
A. One night
B. One week
C. Three weeks
D. Four weeks
17. What is the woman’s job ?
A. Tour guide
B. Desk clerk
C. House keeper
D. Waitress
18. Why is the man uncomfortable ?
A. He needs a different keyboard
B. He needs a different chair
C. He needs new shoes
D. He should sit up straight
19. What will the woman do ?
A. Go on a date
B. Fix the date
C. Sign the letter
D. Leave right away
20. What does the woman need to do first ?
A. Read the report
B. Comment the report
C. Recommend the report
D. Think about the report
PART IV.
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. Each will be spoken just one time. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is said
In your test book, you will read two or more questions about each short talk. The questions will be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.
Questions 21 – 22 refer to the following report
21. What has this study found ?
A. Secretaries are more efficient than managers
B. Managers are more efficient than secretaries
C. Secretaries ask managers for help
D. Secretaries do too much work
22. What do managers say ?
A. Secretaries are hardworking
B. Secretaries ease a manager’s workload
C. Secretaries take more time off
D. Secretaries have more work
Questions 23 – 24 refer to the following announcement
23. How long will the tour be ?
A. 1 hour
B. 3 hours
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes
24. What will the 03:00 talk be about ?
A. Modern art
B. Photography
C. Sculpture
D. Museum design
Questions 25 – 26 refer to the following advertisement
25. What kind of books do this store carry ?
A. Novels
B. Children books
C. Text books
D. Professional books
26. If they don’t have the book you want, what will they do ?
A. Refer to another store
B. Order it
C. Look it up in the list
D. Give you different book
Questions 27 – 28 refer to the following speech
27. In which of the following is Bakrie Trans involved ?
A. Telephone systems
B. Shipping
C. Vehicle manufacture
D. Aerospace
28. What does the speaker say he will do ?
A. Tell about her product
B. Negotiate a dial
C. Sell a product
D. Produce buses
Questions 29 – 30 refer to the following instruction
29. Tigapo is a kind of ……………….
A. Food
B. Coconut
C. Meat
D. Fish
30. What is done after adding 2 tbs of brown sugar into the mixture ?
A. Grate cassava
B. Put into a steamer
C. Close the banana leaf
D. Mix with grated coconut
THIS IS THE END OF LISTENING TEST
READING SECTION ( no. soal 31 – 60 )
In this section of the test, you will have a chance to show how well you understand written English. There are three parts to this section, with special directions for each part.
PART V Directions: Questions 31 – 40 are incomplete sentences. Four words or phrases, marked (a), (b), (c), (d), are given beneath each sentence. You are to choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.
31. ……………… traditional drink makes you slim.
A. Drinking
B. Drunk
C. Drink
D. To be drinking
32. If Mr. Musso ……………… the answer, he would have told you.
A. would know
B. had known
C. knew
D. knows
33. Mr. Jenkins was found to be …………… good at his work nor easy to get along with.
A. either
B. nor
C. both
D. neither
34. The company ……………… pays attention to its customers will be successful.
A. which
B. whom
C. whose
D. who
35. The lecturers will cover the relevant methods of ……………… the impact of currency fluctuations.
A. determination
B. determined
C. determining
D. determine
36. The teacher went to the teacher’s room to ……………… the file.
A. look away
B. look for
C. look at
D. look forward
37. The ……………… will be announced on Friday.
A. decide
B. decisive
C. decisively
D. decision
38. ……………… Miss Belazi missed her connection, she had to take a later flight.
A. Although
B. Because
C. Where
D. Until
39. Their new instructions are ……………… the old ones.
A. more difficult
B. difficult as
C. difficult than
D. more difficult than
40. Please use the parking spaces ……………… for visitors.
A. be designating
B. are designating
C. designated
D. were designated
PART VI.
Directions: In questions 41 – 50, each sentence has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), (D). You are to identify the one underlined word or phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.
41.
Mr. Neil was talking on the telephone when his new client comes and waited for him
in the front office.
42.
The person whom lost a briefcase may claim it at the registration desk.
43.
If Ms. Weiss has missed the last flight, she could not get another until tomorrow morning.
44.
Director : Where are the others? We are about to start the meeting.
Mr. Jones : Some of them is still having lunch.
45.
Visitors must accompany by an employee when they are in the building.
46.
The company headquarter is closer to your office than to my.
47.
Ms. Kent : Why do you like riding a bicycle to work?
John : Well, it is not fast as driving a car, but it is healthier.
48.
Mary : I haven’t seen Mr. Jones in the office lately. How is he?
Jane : He have a problem with his blood pressure, but he’ll be better soon.
49.
Could you get the report you told me about that explains the latest environment regulations?
50.
The project has been completed, since the final report is not ready yet.
PART VII.
Directions: For questions 51 -60, you are given a selection of reading materials, such as letters, notices, memo, graphics, meeting agenda, and advertisements. You are to choose the one best answer (A), (B), (C), (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer. Answer all questions following each reading selection on the basis of what is stated or implied in that selection.
Questions 51, 52 and 53 refer to the following newspaper article.
Two soap opera stars Venna Melinda and Cornelia Agatha were among the guests attending the Linda Chandra shoe show at Hotel Nikko Jakarta that afternoon. Venna, the Miss Jakarta 2002, said that she was a loyal customer of Linda Chandra. “I have a fairly big shoe collection. But, I am not Imelda Marcos,” she said, referring to the former Philippines first lady who is known to have thousands of pairs of shoes. Venna, who practices gymnastics and enjoys Salsa, wore shoes that feature red flower ornaments. “I like feminine shoes,” she said. Wearing a long-sleeve shirt and hot pants- that expose her thighs – Venna said she wore the casual clothes to make the shoes the focus of attention. Meanwhile, clad in blue jeans jacket and pants, Cornelia said that she preferred to wear boots. At the end of the shoe show, a pair of boots were presented to Cornelia, who often performs theater.
51. What is the main idea of the text?
A. Both Venna and Cornelia preferred to wear the same kind of shoes
B. Venna and Cornelia have different sense in wearing shoes
C. The women like practicing gymnastic and enjoy Salsa
D. They are attending the soap opera
52. Where were they talking?
A. At Hotel Nikko Jakarta
B. At the soap opera
C. At gymnastic studio
D At the shoe show
53. “……….referring to the former Philippines first lady who is known to have thousands of…………. “ ( line 5 ).
The synonym of “former” in the sentence is ……………
A. before
B. state
C. previous
D. famous
Questions 54 and 55 refer to the following notice.
54. What does the notice invite people to do?
A. Watch a show
B. Buy T-shirt
C. Donate clothes
D. Attend a class
55. What is the purpose of this event?
A. To find new teachers
B. To help students with homework
C. To publicize a new school
D. To help pay for a school building
Questions 56, 57 and 58 refer to the following label of instructions.
WARNING !!! Do not take this medication while driving or while operating machinery. If taking other medication, see your doctor or pharmacist beforehand.
Please note the following side effects: nausea, dryness of the mouth, headaches and drowsiness.
If a rash appears, discontinue use and notify your physician.
56. Who should avoid taking this medication while working?
A. A writer
B. A chauffeur
C. A waitress
D. A clerk
57. What is one of the negative effects of this medication?
A. Dry skin
B. Upset stomach
C. Hunger
D. Light-headedness
58. Who should see a doctor?
A. People with nausea
B. People who take this medication
C. People who discontinue use
D. People who get skin irritation
Question 59 and 60 refer to the following memo.
MEMO
TO : All RNs ( Room Nurses )
DATE : August 16, 1998
FROM : Margaret Smith, Director of Nurses
SUBJECT : RN Identity Patches
Effective September 1, 1998, all RNs will have the choice of wearing caps or an identity patch. Patches should be sewn on the upper right arm of lab coats or uniform so that staff and patients can easily identify you as an RN. Those RNs wishing to wear identity patches may obtain them for one dollar a piece at the Health Uniform Shop directly across from the hospital on Ames Street. Please call me at extension 732 if you have any question.
59. What does RN stand for?
A. Room Nurses
B. Room Nurse
C. Renting Room
D. Room Numbers
60. Where should the patches be sewn?
A. On the lab coat or uniform
B. On the caps of the uniform
C. On the right arm
D. On the arm or on the hand
THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST
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